Here's the scenario .............
Widow sold her home 11/30/06; she has since remarried. She moved into her new husband's home about a year and a half ago. He has lived in the home for 5+ years.
Looks like she would qualify as a first-timer if a purchase closes after 11/30/09. Does his ownership totally rule out the first-time credit or would she get half of it? What if she was the only one on the title of the new home?
What about the long-time resident possibilities for him... and perhaps for her even if unusual circumstances can be applied?
Widow sold her home 11/30/06; she has since remarried. She moved into her new husband's home about a year and a half ago. He has lived in the home for 5+ years.
Looks like she would qualify as a first-timer if a purchase closes after 11/30/09. Does his ownership totally rule out the first-time credit or would she get half of it? What if she was the only one on the title of the new home?
What about the long-time resident possibilities for him... and perhaps for her even if unusual circumstances can be applied?
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