Home buyer credit planning

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  • LCP
    Senior Member
    • Dec 2005
    • 432

    #1

    Home buyer credit planning

    Here's the scenario .............

    Widow sold her home 11/30/06; she has since remarried. She moved into her new husband's home about a year and a half ago. He has lived in the home for 5+ years.

    Looks like she would qualify as a first-timer if a purchase closes after 11/30/09. Does his ownership totally rule out the first-time credit or would she get half of it? What if she was the only one on the title of the new home?

    What about the long-time resident possibilities for him... and perhaps for her even if unusual circumstances can be applied?
  • BP.
    Senior Member
    • Oct 2005
    • 1750

    #2
    Originally posted by LCP

    Looks like she would qualify as a first-timer . . . Does his ownership totally rule out the first-time credit . . . ?
    She's not qualified, based on his ownership.
    From FTHB FAQ page:



    "2. What is the definition of a move-up or repeat home buyer?

    The law defines a tax credit qualified move-up home buyer (“long-time resident”) as a home owner who has owned and resided in a home for at least five consecutive years of the eight years prior to the purchase date. For married taxpayers, the law tests the homeownership history of both the home buyer and his/her spouse."

    Comment

    • LCP
      Senior Member
      • Dec 2005
      • 432

      #3
      I think she would qualify based on her own history then ....

      She sold the home she lived in for five years on 11/30/06 and purchased a new home on 11/13/09.

      Comment

      • BP.
        Senior Member
        • Oct 2005
        • 1750

        #4
        Originally posted by LCP
        I think she would qualify based on her own history then ....

        She sold the home she lived in for five years on 11/30/06 and purchased a new home on 11/13/09.
        If she is married at the time of her purchase, she and her husband must both meet the required tests.

        Comment

        • LCP
          Senior Member
          • Dec 2005
          • 432

          #5
          Sorry..... I think my question confused things because I didn't realize she had already closed on a home and thought she would need to have been out of a home for three years to qualify as a first timer.

          Each of them separately owned and lived in their respective homes for five of the last eight years so I'm pretty sure they are good.

          Comment

          • LCP
            Senior Member
            • Dec 2005
            • 432

            #6
            On 12/14/09 the IRS added info to their website stating that husband and wife had to qualify as longterm owners of the SAME home.

            Had anyone known that before or seen it coming??

            Comment

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