A corporation officer/shareholder own an automobile used mostly for business purposes. The corporation pays 100% of car payments directly to a financial institution. Also it records personal portion of payments as ‘Loan to Shareholder’ which he pays it back to corporation regularly. In this situation, is the loan still regarded fringe benefit and wage to an employee?
Instead, if the corporation reimburse the business expense portion to an employee, does it make a difference? Same results if the car is owned by the corporation?
What is the most desirable way to set up car payment plan between them.
Thank you.
Instead, if the corporation reimburse the business expense portion to an employee, does it make a difference? Same results if the car is owned by the corporation?
What is the most desirable way to set up car payment plan between them.
Thank you.
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