This seems to be an increasing problem, with a solution so simple, only the government could fail to see it.
How many of you have had 1099-Rs from retirement programs, with a code "P." This causes a lot of trouble, and makes clients very livid when you explain it to them. Simply put, these things create a reporting requirement a year in advance of their date.
If your client receives one dated 2004, that means the income is to be reported on their 2003 return. This means their 2003 return must be amended. For reasons I'm sure you will understand, my fee for a 1040X is pretty stiff by comparison, and part of the reason is to discourage customers from having them by reporting all income in the year of question.
The fund custodians send a letter every year (always seems to be after March 15) advising the recipient that they will receive a 1099R in the following year but the income must be reported the year in question. So if you are preparing a return AFTER March 15th, and the client advises you of the letter, you might be able to report the income "on time" and avoid the amended return mess. I am able to do this maybe 15% of the time, and the customer is fine as long as he doesn't use another tax preparer next year.
Given all of the mayhem this creates for EVERYONE (preparers, clients, custodians, IRS, etc.) why is this situation allowed to continue? I'm sure the answer lies somewhere in the translation of income from one year to another in the retirement account, but at any rate the facts are known at the time and some regulation either forces or allows the custodians to report in this bizarre fashion.
Would like some discussion on the "how and why" this came to be, possibly from well-informed posters with an IRS background or other special knowledge. Secondly, why can't something be done about it?
Thank you in advance - Ron Jordan
How many of you have had 1099-Rs from retirement programs, with a code "P." This causes a lot of trouble, and makes clients very livid when you explain it to them. Simply put, these things create a reporting requirement a year in advance of their date.
If your client receives one dated 2004, that means the income is to be reported on their 2003 return. This means their 2003 return must be amended. For reasons I'm sure you will understand, my fee for a 1040X is pretty stiff by comparison, and part of the reason is to discourage customers from having them by reporting all income in the year of question.
The fund custodians send a letter every year (always seems to be after March 15) advising the recipient that they will receive a 1099R in the following year but the income must be reported the year in question. So if you are preparing a return AFTER March 15th, and the client advises you of the letter, you might be able to report the income "on time" and avoid the amended return mess. I am able to do this maybe 15% of the time, and the customer is fine as long as he doesn't use another tax preparer next year.
Given all of the mayhem this creates for EVERYONE (preparers, clients, custodians, IRS, etc.) why is this situation allowed to continue? I'm sure the answer lies somewhere in the translation of income from one year to another in the retirement account, but at any rate the facts are known at the time and some regulation either forces or allows the custodians to report in this bizarre fashion.
Would like some discussion on the "how and why" this came to be, possibly from well-informed posters with an IRS background or other special knowledge. Secondly, why can't something be done about it?
Thank you in advance - Ron Jordan
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