For those of you who care the case that gives rise to these questions is Samra and Shah Adel v. Commissioner, TC Summary Opinion 2008-65. I have read only a summary and I do plan to ask these questions of the magazine where I read about the case. But i thought I would raise them here as well.
Let me put the case in a nut shell. In 1979 the Soviet Army invaded Afghanistan, where the Adels lived, and in 1980 they decided to get out of the country. The Soviet regime wanted them and people like them to stay, so it was made illegal to sell a vehicle or a home to an unrelated party. That much it seems to me should be independently verifiable, and if true, it makes very believable to me their claim that they traded a Mercedes Benz worth $25K to an Uncle for $12,500 in cash and some gold and emerald jewelry without getting any documentation. By 2002 the family was in the US and the Jewelry was stolen. On their tax return the family attempted to base their casualty deduction on the FMV of the jewelry and of course that was incorrect since their basis was lower. What I don't understand is why the Tax Court estimated their basis at $5,000. I realize that had the trade taken place in this country there would have been documentation in most cases such as a sales contract. But does the law not allow exceptions to the general rule that documentation is necessary? In my view the facts that the Adels came from Afghanistan and the conditions there at the time should be verifiable and if true they certainly explain the lack of paperwork on the sale. What can anyone tell me that would make sense of the Court's decision in this case?
Let me put the case in a nut shell. In 1979 the Soviet Army invaded Afghanistan, where the Adels lived, and in 1980 they decided to get out of the country. The Soviet regime wanted them and people like them to stay, so it was made illegal to sell a vehicle or a home to an unrelated party. That much it seems to me should be independently verifiable, and if true, it makes very believable to me their claim that they traded a Mercedes Benz worth $25K to an Uncle for $12,500 in cash and some gold and emerald jewelry without getting any documentation. By 2002 the family was in the US and the Jewelry was stolen. On their tax return the family attempted to base their casualty deduction on the FMV of the jewelry and of course that was incorrect since their basis was lower. What I don't understand is why the Tax Court estimated their basis at $5,000. I realize that had the trade taken place in this country there would have been documentation in most cases such as a sales contract. But does the law not allow exceptions to the general rule that documentation is necessary? In my view the facts that the Adels came from Afghanistan and the conditions there at the time should be verifiable and if true they certainly explain the lack of paperwork on the sale. What can anyone tell me that would make sense of the Court's decision in this case?
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