For one final 1065 I was trying to figure out how to account for a liquidating distribution of money with no basis for any of the partners. I was trying to figure out how to have the bottom line with enough income to give them basis. They had taken the profit and allocated it to the partners in different amounts based on what the partners did therefore it was guaranteed payments.
But by doing so, the capital account ended up with more than zero which really confused me on how to get it to zero and still allow for this basis question.
Finally I concluded that maybe there's a reason that the preparer of the partnership return isn't responsible for figuring basis. So, I left the bottom line at zero and put all the profit into guaranteed payments (because a different amont went to each partner) and stopped worrying about the fact that they will have a capital gain on the distribution.
Any thoughts?
But by doing so, the capital account ended up with more than zero which really confused me on how to get it to zero and still allow for this basis question.
Finally I concluded that maybe there's a reason that the preparer of the partnership return isn't responsible for figuring basis. So, I left the bottom line at zero and put all the profit into guaranteed payments (because a different amont went to each partner) and stopped worrying about the fact that they will have a capital gain on the distribution.
Any thoughts?
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