Apparently I misunderstood the original post.
I took the original post to mean that the owner was living in the home and occupying the 5th bedroom. If this is not the case, than other posters are correct that vacation home rules do not apply. However, the thread seems to have become unclear as to whether we are talking about Zahl's original post or the entirely different situation described by DMICPA. In Zahl's post, nobody has explained what is being done with the 5th bedroom. That seems to be a fairly critical point. Incidentally, a separate living unit does not require a separate building -- a so-called "mother-in-law suite" will qualify. And why are we dealing now with a 2006 post?
Originally posted by zahl
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