Taxpayer has never paid in estimates, but owes a large sum this year due to TXU stock buy out. Taxpayer owes several thousand. Would there be any underpayment penalty or interest due since there were no prior tax liability., thus no estimate requirement?
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Underpayment Of Tax Penalty
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Prior year
On the 2006 return, was there no tax liability, or no balance due?
And when during the year did the client get the big chunk of money?
These two variables can make a big difference...Burton M. Koss
koss@usakoss.net
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The map is not the territory...
and the instruction book is not the process.
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I have a TXU buy out client too
and she came to me in December for me to calculate an estimate, and I did and she paid it in January...She also got her monies in October, I was able to get rid of the penalty since 1) she paid the estimate in the quarter that she received the increase in income and 2) she had zero tax liability last year...As was said, try putting the facts of 2006 in the 2210 program, and see what happens...
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Annualize the 2210
There is an option on Form 2210 to report your estimated tax liability for each quarter[1] of the year, and measure your payments. Since this occurred in October, you may calculate a lower penalty (maybe even NO penalty) if you use the annualization method.
It's not easy. Your software will most likely handle the intricate calculations. I used to have to do this by hand in the "old days."
[1] "Quarter" in this sense is used loosely. If you go through the meat-grinder on this method you will discover that these are not perfectly timed quarters, but irregular.
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Originally posted by Gabriele View PostAm I wrong again? I thought as long as you don't have any tax liability the year before you never will have any underpayment penalty no matter how much and when you received income this year.
After clarifying, the original poster said there was no balance due. No balance due is not the same as no tax liability.
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