Not a real client...
Former student of mine called, she's taking a course in federal taxation, and wanted my take on a question in her textbook:
Taxpayer is running an illegal bookmaking business out of his home. County sheriff shows up with a warrant, and seizes a large quantity of cash.
Can the taxpayer take a deduction for the loss of the money under IRC Section 165?
Section 165 appears to be losses on the sale or "other disposition" [LMAO] of assets "used in a trade or business," i.e., Form 4797...
Assume for the sake of argument that the client will not get the money back, because it is subject to forfeiture. So it is indeed a complete loss.
My answer, for now, is this:
It's a trick question, to be sure.
The loss appears to be deductible, and the fact that his business activity was illegal under local laws does not necessarily bar him from taking a loss that is deductible under federal tax law.
But what is his basis?
The deductible amount of the loss is limited to his adjusted basis.
If the cash in question is the "fruits" of his illegal wagering business, then his basis in the money is zero. In fact, even if the cash was money that he legitimately earned at some other job, which he is now using in the wagering business, the basis is still zero. He didn't buy the money...
Someone else asked me the other day if I knew how to depreciate indentured servants...
Former student of mine called, she's taking a course in federal taxation, and wanted my take on a question in her textbook:
Taxpayer is running an illegal bookmaking business out of his home. County sheriff shows up with a warrant, and seizes a large quantity of cash.
Can the taxpayer take a deduction for the loss of the money under IRC Section 165?
Section 165 appears to be losses on the sale or "other disposition" [LMAO] of assets "used in a trade or business," i.e., Form 4797...
Assume for the sake of argument that the client will not get the money back, because it is subject to forfeiture. So it is indeed a complete loss.
My answer, for now, is this:
It's a trick question, to be sure.
The loss appears to be deductible, and the fact that his business activity was illegal under local laws does not necessarily bar him from taking a loss that is deductible under federal tax law.
But what is his basis?
The deductible amount of the loss is limited to his adjusted basis.
If the cash in question is the "fruits" of his illegal wagering business, then his basis in the money is zero. In fact, even if the cash was money that he legitimately earned at some other job, which he is now using in the wagering business, the basis is still zero. He didn't buy the money...
Someone else asked me the other day if I knew how to depreciate indentured servants...
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