I have a cash basis S-Corp owner who has loaned significant amounts to his cash poor S-Corp since inception (3 years now). Every year, he properly accrues interest to the outstanding amount but he doesn't 'pay' the interest (no cash out). Every year, since he is cash basis, I exclude the interest expense on the note from the tax reporting.
For background, the model he developed calls for cash infusions until the business itself gets underway. So far he is on projection to realize positive cash flows by year 5. In the meantime, he isn't paying himself anything (he has other sources of income outside this S-Corp to support himself so this isn't some bogus claim).
This year, he asked me whether or not he could have the S-Corp 'pay' the interest every year so he could take the deduction.
To me, the intuitive answer is no. 'No' because the S-Corp still doesn't generate enough cash to cover itself (hence the annual increase to the loan balance) so you can't go in and create a phantom by 'paying' the interest only to turn around the next year and loan it back.
Also, it seems to me that he would first have to pay himself a salary before he could justify paying himself interest. (My current working theory for why he gets no salary from the SCorp is that it's been running at a consistent loss and is cash poor).
However, I have no better answer for him than than this.
Can anyone help me craft a more 'intelligent' response, maybe tied to a precedent or cite or something? Or if I am wrong, point me in the right direction?
Thank you in advance.
For background, the model he developed calls for cash infusions until the business itself gets underway. So far he is on projection to realize positive cash flows by year 5. In the meantime, he isn't paying himself anything (he has other sources of income outside this S-Corp to support himself so this isn't some bogus claim).
This year, he asked me whether or not he could have the S-Corp 'pay' the interest every year so he could take the deduction.
To me, the intuitive answer is no. 'No' because the S-Corp still doesn't generate enough cash to cover itself (hence the annual increase to the loan balance) so you can't go in and create a phantom by 'paying' the interest only to turn around the next year and loan it back.
Also, it seems to me that he would first have to pay himself a salary before he could justify paying himself interest. (My current working theory for why he gets no salary from the SCorp is that it's been running at a consistent loss and is cash poor).
However, I have no better answer for him than than this.
Can anyone help me craft a more 'intelligent' response, maybe tied to a precedent or cite or something? Or if I am wrong, point me in the right direction?
Thank you in advance.
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