A client asked me if he sells his prior primary residence for a loss, is it deductible? I told him no, unless the home was converted to a rental property.
The home in question is in an inflated real estate state, not to be named. It was his primary residence until he moved to Texas 2 years ago; his current home is his primary residence, making the home in the other state his second home.
The home in the other state has not and never will be available for rent nor does he want to convert the home to a rental property. I told him that he still cannot deduct a loss on this residence.
Am I wrong on this. Did this old primary residence become an investment property when he moved to Texas? And if so, if it is sold for a loss, can he deduct the loss as a LTC loss; subject to a max of $3k a year?
I think my brain is about to explode. TIA.
The home in question is in an inflated real estate state, not to be named. It was his primary residence until he moved to Texas 2 years ago; his current home is his primary residence, making the home in the other state his second home.
The home in the other state has not and never will be available for rent nor does he want to convert the home to a rental property. I told him that he still cannot deduct a loss on this residence.
Am I wrong on this. Did this old primary residence become an investment property when he moved to Texas? And if so, if it is sold for a loss, can he deduct the loss as a LTC loss; subject to a max of $3k a year?
I think my brain is about to explode. TIA.
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