I have a client that converted a primary house into a rental 3 years ago. Prior to that he lived in the house for 3 years. Now he sold the house does he still qualify for the 2in5 exclusion. If so doen he have to recapture the deperaction that was taken during the three years it was a rental? I can not figure this out so any help or direction would be appricated.
Girard
Girard
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