Bees,
When I posted some links from past posts to Lion's thread yesterday, you had given this reply to Sandy regarding her technical termination of the partnership she was working on.
Quote:
In other words, you pretend the partnership sells all of its assets at their FMV. Some of the gain is going to be short term capital gain, some of it is going to be long term capital gain, some of it is going to be depreciation recapture, and some of it is going to be ordinary income from the sale of inventory. The gain from the sale of each asset is then allocated to each partner based upon their ownership interest.
Those numbers will not be on the K-1. I would have the partnership issue a separate worksheet to each partner that makes this calculation for each, and in turn attach it to the taxpayer's copy of the 1040 to justify the Schedule D and 4797 amounts.
I was studying all of this yesterday, as I will have a very similar situation for one of my partnerships that will be selling their partnership to another company by year's-end (they will no longer be connected with the new company). My partnership has receivables, recapture, income/profit, etc.,for '07.
My questions to you are:
1) Does the advice you gave Sandy below hold true for my situation or is there a different way to show this? I am having a hard time understanding how this is shown without a K-1.
2) Is only profit/loss for my client's partnership shown on a final K-1 and the rest is shown on an office-generated worksheet for the IRS and then manually input onto the client's 1040 and related forms? Or, do we prepare the sale of assets to print on the K-1, along with the profit/loss then delete that process, as if it never happened?
I really am so confused, so I was hoping you could walk me through the steps and maybe shed some light on how to do this for me. Sorry to be such a pain-in-the-neck, but I am panicked, to say the least!
Thank you,
Dennis
When I posted some links from past posts to Lion's thread yesterday, you had given this reply to Sandy regarding her technical termination of the partnership she was working on.
Quote:
In other words, you pretend the partnership sells all of its assets at their FMV. Some of the gain is going to be short term capital gain, some of it is going to be long term capital gain, some of it is going to be depreciation recapture, and some of it is going to be ordinary income from the sale of inventory. The gain from the sale of each asset is then allocated to each partner based upon their ownership interest.
Those numbers will not be on the K-1. I would have the partnership issue a separate worksheet to each partner that makes this calculation for each, and in turn attach it to the taxpayer's copy of the 1040 to justify the Schedule D and 4797 amounts.
I was studying all of this yesterday, as I will have a very similar situation for one of my partnerships that will be selling their partnership to another company by year's-end (they will no longer be connected with the new company). My partnership has receivables, recapture, income/profit, etc.,for '07.
My questions to you are:
1) Does the advice you gave Sandy below hold true for my situation or is there a different way to show this? I am having a hard time understanding how this is shown without a K-1.
2) Is only profit/loss for my client's partnership shown on a final K-1 and the rest is shown on an office-generated worksheet for the IRS and then manually input onto the client's 1040 and related forms? Or, do we prepare the sale of assets to print on the K-1, along with the profit/loss then delete that process, as if it never happened?
I really am so confused, so I was hoping you could walk me through the steps and maybe shed some light on how to do this for me. Sorry to be such a pain-in-the-neck, but I am panicked, to say the least!
Thank you,
Dennis
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