Client had a 2002 Dodge truck bought new in '02 for $16,000 and took standard mileage rate every year. He sold it for $12K in Feb. '06.
I looked up the "depreciation component" portion of the mileage allowance and it's 15, 16, 16, and 17 cents respectively for '02, '03, '04, and '05. Total business miles driven for those years was roughly 200K and multiplying that by those cents per mile totals up to about $31,000 -- reducing the original $16K basis to zero and giving him a 100% gain on the sale. But...my question is this: What about the $15K overage and negative difference? Is that just ignored or does/would IRS say there's a taxable gain there?
I looked up the "depreciation component" portion of the mileage allowance and it's 15, 16, 16, and 17 cents respectively for '02, '03, '04, and '05. Total business miles driven for those years was roughly 200K and multiplying that by those cents per mile totals up to about $31,000 -- reducing the original $16K basis to zero and giving him a 100% gain on the sale. But...my question is this: What about the $15K overage and negative difference? Is that just ignored or does/would IRS say there's a taxable gain there?
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