Hi all,
I have a client who came to me having not filed her taxes since 2001. She was already getting collection letters from 2002 and 2003 piling up interest and penalties. She had the '02 and '03 taxes done somewhere else and had just not sent them in (IRS had estimated her taxes for those years based on the W-2s and 1099s she had gotten.) I did her 2004-2006 returns. She got a refund for her 2005 return that they have already applied to her outstanding 2003 balance, she owed $1400+ for 2004 that she did not pay when we filed, and about $500 for 2006 that she did pay. She is head of household with her elderly mother as a dependent, and has virtually no assets and very low self-employment income (most of her tax due is self employment tax.) I am going to file an OIC for her for all the tax years she owes for, including for the 2004 tax, penalties, and interest. She has gotten no correspondence from the IRS with regards to that 2004 liability. My question is, should I wait for them to get back to her about the added penalties and interest before filing the OIC? According to the OIC instructions: "You can not submit an offer that is solely for a tax year or tax period that has not been assessed. ' Am I reading that right when I interpret it to mean that we need to wait for the IRS to assess the tax, penalties, and interest for the 2004 return before filing the OIC? Does their use of the word "solely" mean that we can file the OIC and include the 2004 tax year along with the others since she has been assessed penalties and interest for the other two years? Or will they only take into account the amounts for the 2002-3 liabilities since they are the only ones that they have (so far) gotten in touch with her about? Thanks for any help anyone can give me with this. This is the first OIC that I have had to deal with, though from the calls I have been getting lately it may not be the last.
neil
I have a client who came to me having not filed her taxes since 2001. She was already getting collection letters from 2002 and 2003 piling up interest and penalties. She had the '02 and '03 taxes done somewhere else and had just not sent them in (IRS had estimated her taxes for those years based on the W-2s and 1099s she had gotten.) I did her 2004-2006 returns. She got a refund for her 2005 return that they have already applied to her outstanding 2003 balance, she owed $1400+ for 2004 that she did not pay when we filed, and about $500 for 2006 that she did pay. She is head of household with her elderly mother as a dependent, and has virtually no assets and very low self-employment income (most of her tax due is self employment tax.) I am going to file an OIC for her for all the tax years she owes for, including for the 2004 tax, penalties, and interest. She has gotten no correspondence from the IRS with regards to that 2004 liability. My question is, should I wait for them to get back to her about the added penalties and interest before filing the OIC? According to the OIC instructions: "You can not submit an offer that is solely for a tax year or tax period that has not been assessed. ' Am I reading that right when I interpret it to mean that we need to wait for the IRS to assess the tax, penalties, and interest for the 2004 return before filing the OIC? Does their use of the word "solely" mean that we can file the OIC and include the 2004 tax year along with the others since she has been assessed penalties and interest for the other two years? Or will they only take into account the amounts for the 2002-3 liabilities since they are the only ones that they have (so far) gotten in touch with her about? Thanks for any help anyone can give me with this. This is the first OIC that I have had to deal with, though from the calls I have been getting lately it may not be the last.
neil
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