A question about 1031 exchange. For example:
Old property FMV (sell price): $100,000
Old property loan paid off by the sale proceeds: $40,000
New Property FMV (purchase price): $150,000
New Property loan assumed: $0.00
Taxpayer put in $90,000 to the escrow to close the transaction
Assume no buy and sale costs to make it simple
Assume the deal fulfills all the other requirements of a 1031 exchange.
Since what the taxpayer put in ($90,000) to close the transaction is more than the loan liability relieved ($40,000), is it pretty safe to say that there will be no gain to be recognized in this exchange?
Old property FMV (sell price): $100,000
Old property loan paid off by the sale proceeds: $40,000
New Property FMV (purchase price): $150,000
New Property loan assumed: $0.00
Taxpayer put in $90,000 to the escrow to close the transaction
Assume no buy and sale costs to make it simple
Assume the deal fulfills all the other requirements of a 1031 exchange.
Since what the taxpayer put in ($90,000) to close the transaction is more than the loan liability relieved ($40,000), is it pretty safe to say that there will be no gain to be recognized in this exchange?
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