One of my high income clients strugggles with AMT every year.
A year or so ago I changed the depreciation method for his corporation.
His equipment is now producing a "negative" differential for AMT
depreciation. In 2006, this "negative" differential was about ($45,000).
He has no 2006 AMT because my software is forcing an entry of
-$45000 into the AMT calculation. In fact, he is recovering all of last
year's AMT on an 8801.
Am I missing something? I was always taught that the Depreciation
Adjustment goes in one direction. You have to report the excess, but
cannot use a deficiency. My software does not allow zeroing out the
line..
HELP!! Am I wrong to report the "excess" and not the "shortage?"
Thanks in advance
A year or so ago I changed the depreciation method for his corporation.
His equipment is now producing a "negative" differential for AMT
depreciation. In 2006, this "negative" differential was about ($45,000).
He has no 2006 AMT because my software is forcing an entry of
-$45000 into the AMT calculation. In fact, he is recovering all of last
year's AMT on an 8801.
Am I missing something? I was always taught that the Depreciation
Adjustment goes in one direction. You have to report the excess, but
cannot use a deficiency. My software does not allow zeroing out the
line..
HELP!! Am I wrong to report the "excess" and not the "shortage?"
Thanks in advance
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