Client was an employee for an S-Corp. Employees are able to purchase stocks from the owners. He just retired and we are trying to figure out his basis in this stock because he sold it. This company is very successful. Every quarter there are dividends. Stockholders receive approx 8% in cash dividends the other 92% is reinvested in the company. Client has received a K-1 every year.
He owns 20,000 shares. Purchased at various times. We know the dates and purchase various purchase prices.
His K-1 this year is typical of previous years. It looks like this
Line 1 Ordinary business income 583,615
Line 4 Interest Income 7,781
Line 5a Ordinary dividends 25,511
Line 5b Qualified dividends 25,511
16C Items affecting sh basis 303 (Nondeductible expenses)
16D Items affecting sh basis 545,000 (Property distributions)
17A Other Information 33,292 (investment income)
Dividends declared and paid in 2006 were $27.25/per share for a total of $545,000 (line 16d on K-1).
My dilemma is this:
Since my client has owned stock since 1996, I do not have all the K-1's, but the controller of the company said to figure his basis with this calculation:
(Sale Price - Purchase price)-(Sale price book value - Purchase price book value) = Capital Gain.
The controller has provided a spreadsheet with all the figures needed.
Does this look correct? What I gather from this calculation, the controller is calculating the book value based on the dividends and profit that is in AAA.
He owns 20,000 shares. Purchased at various times. We know the dates and purchase various purchase prices.
His K-1 this year is typical of previous years. It looks like this
Line 1 Ordinary business income 583,615
Line 4 Interest Income 7,781
Line 5a Ordinary dividends 25,511
Line 5b Qualified dividends 25,511
16C Items affecting sh basis 303 (Nondeductible expenses)
16D Items affecting sh basis 545,000 (Property distributions)
17A Other Information 33,292 (investment income)
Dividends declared and paid in 2006 were $27.25/per share for a total of $545,000 (line 16d on K-1).
My dilemma is this:
Since my client has owned stock since 1996, I do not have all the K-1's, but the controller of the company said to figure his basis with this calculation:
(Sale Price - Purchase price)-(Sale price book value - Purchase price book value) = Capital Gain.
The controller has provided a spreadsheet with all the figures needed.
Does this look correct? What I gather from this calculation, the controller is calculating the book value based on the dividends and profit that is in AAA.
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