Client was married, but 10 years ago _thought_ she became divorced (she is now in her 60s and drawing retirement). A couple years ago however, she found out that the divorce was never actually filed -- says she even had a clerk of courts search for any divorce filing and none was to be found. Client has been receiving $1000/mo "alimony" payments for the entire time since she originally thought the divorce was finalized. In the past she has filed Single and claimed them as alimony income, which then allowed her to also fund a Traditional IRA. Last year she switched back to MFS (after finding the divorce was not actually filed, and therefore she is still legally married) and claimed alimony income and funded her Trad IRA (she has a folder of communication from the IRS regarding the Single vs. MFS and is trying to clear that up with them). There were no children in this marriage -- so there is no child support vs. alimony potential.
My question is: since the divorce was never filed with the courts, how can the payments from her husband to her be "alimony"?? Specifically, I'm not sure that Sec 71(b)(1)(C) is met:
"(C) in the case of an individual legally separated from his spouse under a decree of divorce or of separate maintenance, the payee spouse and the payor spouse are not members of the same household at the time such payment is made"
-- If the divorce decree was never filed (and client says there was no other legal separation order either), then I see them as separated, but not "legally separated".
Any comments/insight would be appreciated.
Bill
My question is: since the divorce was never filed with the courts, how can the payments from her husband to her be "alimony"?? Specifically, I'm not sure that Sec 71(b)(1)(C) is met:
"(C) in the case of an individual legally separated from his spouse under a decree of divorce or of separate maintenance, the payee spouse and the payor spouse are not members of the same household at the time such payment is made"
-- If the divorce decree was never filed (and client says there was no other legal separation order either), then I see them as separated, but not "legally separated".
Any comments/insight would be appreciated.
Bill
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