Have a client who plans to sell her house in Mexico this year. (she is US citizen). She has lived there since 2000. She will now live permanently in the US.
I have checked everywhere I can think. I believe that even though the property is in Mexico, it will still be qualified for the Sec. 121 exclusion.
Anyone know if this is incorrect? If so, can you give me cite?
I have checked everywhere I can think. I believe that even though the property is in Mexico, it will still be qualified for the Sec. 121 exclusion.
Anyone know if this is incorrect? If so, can you give me cite?
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