Taxpayer sold a rental property for $115,000. The buyer took out a bank mortgage for $70,000 and seller financed the remaining $35,000. There were only 2 installment payments in 2006, with 12 to occur in 2007 and 2008 and a balloon payment of $30,000 in 2009. Am I right that the gain for 2006 is the $70,000 received plus the two installment payments received in 2006, minus basis and selling costs? If so, does that mean that no basis is available to offset the gain in 2009 (the year of the balloon payment)? Or, do we apportion some of the basis to each year in which there is an installment payment to be received?
Thanks in advance!
Thanks in advance!
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