I think my brain is melting. I either have alzheimer's or I have studied so much over the past 6 months that my brain has official imploded.
Here's the situation:
Dentist is sole shareholder/owner of S corp. Dentist buys property, he thinks, in the S Corp name---meaning he thinks the S Corp is responsible for the note. However, he finds out later that the property is in his name---he is responsible for the note.
In order to deduct the interest on the property on his 1120S, can he contribute the property, subject to a mortgage to the S Corp without a taxable event occurring? If he cannot deduct the interest on his 1120S, what other options does he have? Could the interest be reported on Sch. E, part II as "business interest"?
His original cost of property--land for a future professional building: $460,000
Mortgage on land: $415,000
I know that if you contribute property subject to a liability to a partnership, the assumption of the liability is considered a distribution to the partner. I am thinking that in this case, there should be no taxable event until the property is sold or distributed back to the shareholder.
Am I correct in my assumptions or do I need to be measured for a straight jacket?
TIA
Here's the situation:
Dentist is sole shareholder/owner of S corp. Dentist buys property, he thinks, in the S Corp name---meaning he thinks the S Corp is responsible for the note. However, he finds out later that the property is in his name---he is responsible for the note.
In order to deduct the interest on the property on his 1120S, can he contribute the property, subject to a mortgage to the S Corp without a taxable event occurring? If he cannot deduct the interest on his 1120S, what other options does he have? Could the interest be reported on Sch. E, part II as "business interest"?
His original cost of property--land for a future professional building: $460,000
Mortgage on land: $415,000
I know that if you contribute property subject to a liability to a partnership, the assumption of the liability is considered a distribution to the partner. I am thinking that in this case, there should be no taxable event until the property is sold or distributed back to the shareholder.
Am I correct in my assumptions or do I need to be measured for a straight jacket?
TIA
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