I have a client that is splitting the sale of his mother's residence with his sister and his mother.
*Facts:
Mother is still alive
This is not a community property state
Mother's husband died years before the property was partially gifted to the children.
*My stand on this matter:
Mother and her husband paid $22,000 for the house.
That would be $11,000 each.
When her husband died, the FMV was $44,000 (very conservative).
The property sold for $160,000.
**Mother's basis on the father's date of death is her $11,000 and half of his $44,000 to equal $33,000. The mother then gifted it to the children (the basis would have went with it) she later needed it back, so they gifted it back to her (again the basis would have went with the gift) she then gifted it to them again and they sold it for the mother to be able to live in a nursing home (the basis would still be $33,000). All of these transfers took place on a $1 quit claim deed.
**Another EA is doing the taxes for the sister's portion and she is saying that we can't do a stepped-up basis. Due to the fact that we are only considering the mother's stepped-up basis, on the DOD of her husband and the transfers took place after this basis would have been increase, I don't see why we can't. She is having the daughter pay tax on the entire portion of her 1099 and only deducting the closing costs.
Each one of the children did receive a 1099S and so did the mother, she retained a portion (16%).
Technically, it was the mother's residence, she retained an interest and control of when it would sell, when she wanted it and when she quit claimed it to the children. She also continued to live there until she went to the nursing home. In my opinion, I think it could be an incomplete gift and all could be reported on the mother's return as sale of her residence. I would do more research regarding that matter before making that conclusion but I know that my client would not go for it because he does not want to believe that he can have his mother's basis in it. Because his sister's EA says no. I suspect that she gifted portions back to them to keep her sale dollars from being more than the rules allow for her expenses to be paid in the nursing home.
Let me know your thoughts.
Thanks!
*Facts:
Mother is still alive
This is not a community property state
Mother's husband died years before the property was partially gifted to the children.
*My stand on this matter:
Mother and her husband paid $22,000 for the house.
That would be $11,000 each.
When her husband died, the FMV was $44,000 (very conservative).
The property sold for $160,000.
**Mother's basis on the father's date of death is her $11,000 and half of his $44,000 to equal $33,000. The mother then gifted it to the children (the basis would have went with it) she later needed it back, so they gifted it back to her (again the basis would have went with the gift) she then gifted it to them again and they sold it for the mother to be able to live in a nursing home (the basis would still be $33,000). All of these transfers took place on a $1 quit claim deed.
**Another EA is doing the taxes for the sister's portion and she is saying that we can't do a stepped-up basis. Due to the fact that we are only considering the mother's stepped-up basis, on the DOD of her husband and the transfers took place after this basis would have been increase, I don't see why we can't. She is having the daughter pay tax on the entire portion of her 1099 and only deducting the closing costs.
Each one of the children did receive a 1099S and so did the mother, she retained a portion (16%).
Technically, it was the mother's residence, she retained an interest and control of when it would sell, when she wanted it and when she quit claimed it to the children. She also continued to live there until she went to the nursing home. In my opinion, I think it could be an incomplete gift and all could be reported on the mother's return as sale of her residence. I would do more research regarding that matter before making that conclusion but I know that my client would not go for it because he does not want to believe that he can have his mother's basis in it. Because his sister's EA says no. I suspect that she gifted portions back to them to keep her sale dollars from being more than the rules allow for her expenses to be paid in the nursing home.
Let me know your thoughts.
Thanks!
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