I have a question which is probably quite simple to answer for most of the folks on this board, but I'm just a bit stymied at this moment.
Here is the scenario. Spouse passes away in year 2003. In year 2004 surviving spouse sells their main home. All requirement specified in Section 121 regarding ownership, use, etc., have been met. My recollection is that the surviving spouse acquires one half the stepped up basis established by the deceased spouse on date of death. Is this correct? I have looked at Section 1014 and it seems to allude to this fact but perhaps there is a better reference source that I should review.
(I know, I know, I shouldn't be wasting other people's time on such a basic question, but I'm just drawing a blank on this one.)
I would sure appreciate any help anyone can offer (to include cite, please.)
Thank you in advance.
Aviator
Here is the scenario. Spouse passes away in year 2003. In year 2004 surviving spouse sells their main home. All requirement specified in Section 121 regarding ownership, use, etc., have been met. My recollection is that the surviving spouse acquires one half the stepped up basis established by the deceased spouse on date of death. Is this correct? I have looked at Section 1014 and it seems to allude to this fact but perhaps there is a better reference source that I should review.
(I know, I know, I shouldn't be wasting other people's time on such a basic question, but I'm just drawing a blank on this one.)
I would sure appreciate any help anyone can offer (to include cite, please.)
Thank you in advance.
Aviator
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