Originally posted by Brad Imsdahl
Assuming a one-time investment, why should there be a difference between the "individual's" tax status if he purchases mothers $100,000 piece of real estate requiring no fix-up for investment verses mothers $75,000 real estate that requires $25,000 fix-up before sale. Either way the individual has a $100,000 cost personal capital asset that can be sold (1040 Sch-D), rented, or used for whatever purpose the individual wishes. Its not until you see activity, intent/purpose, and results that you can say he was not an investor but is/was a trade or business (unless the taxpayer has a previous record of business activity in that line of work).
I am still looking for your cite and definition of an "Investor".
Comment