In 2002 my client and her husband placed their residence in a nominee trust. In 2005 the husband died and in 2006 the house was sold. It was a primary residence for 40 years.
Given this set of facts I feel the wife gets a 50% step up (does not qualify for 100% step up because of pre 1977 ownership or community property rules) ) and then section 121 exclusion. Does everyone agree?
Now the wrinkle. At the time the nominee trust was set up an irrevocable trust was set up as well. One clause states all real esate owned by the grantors was to be in the irrevocable trust. However the irrevocable trust was intentionally written with clauses which made it defective. The house was titled to the nominee trust and sold by the nominee trust. So my feeling is I just ignore the irrevocable trust. Any thoughts?
Given this set of facts I feel the wife gets a 50% step up (does not qualify for 100% step up because of pre 1977 ownership or community property rules) ) and then section 121 exclusion. Does everyone agree?
Now the wrinkle. At the time the nominee trust was set up an irrevocable trust was set up as well. One clause states all real esate owned by the grantors was to be in the irrevocable trust. However the irrevocable trust was intentionally written with clauses which made it defective. The house was titled to the nominee trust and sold by the nominee trust. So my feeling is I just ignore the irrevocable trust. Any thoughts?
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