As usual, TP does their thing and then comes to us to get them out of it. TP's son left wife for neighbor woman. TP's wife feels sorry for ex-daughter-in-law an takes out unsecured loan ($20,000+-) with check made to daughter-in-law for down payment on house. This was intended to be a loan but naturally no note was signed and no mortgage was recorded. Daughter-in-law has not made any payments in 2 years. TP's wife was unable to make payments on loan and settled on debt for less than full amount with money from her retirement acccount resulting in both penalties on early withdrawal as well as being taxed on forgiven debt. She would now like to ease the pain by at least being able to claim bad debt loss. I do not see how I can do this as there is no promissory note and no documentation of collection efforts as well as no event that we can point to (bankrupcy, forclosure, etc). She says she would be willing to forget the whole thing and chalk it up to experience, but her husband is unrelentless in his verbal abuse of her for being so "dumb".
If she would file suit against the daughter-in-law for the debt and obtain an uncollectable judgment against her, would this be sufficient to be able to claim bad debt.
Is this entirely a lost cause or is there something that she can do?
If she would file suit against the daughter-in-law for the debt and obtain an uncollectable judgment against her, would this be sufficient to be able to claim bad debt.
Is this entirely a lost cause or is there something that she can do?
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