Client sold a home (not 121 exclusion) on an installment sale.
Later in the year the client wanted to sell the whole note to a company that bought notes. However, the terms were too stiff. So they "borrowed" a smaller amount from that company.
The payments from the buyer of the home will go to the company until the principal of what they borrowed is repaid. Then the payments start coming back to them.
My first thought was to tax all the principal and interest they received earlier in the year, plus the additional amount that they "borrowed" from the company. (That is the way I did their projected tax for the year.) Now I am second guessing.
In publication 537 page 5 it says “If you use an installment obligation to secure any debt, the net proceeds from the debt may be treated as a payment on the installment obligation. This is known as the pledge rule and it applies if the selling price of the property is over $150000. It does not apply to the following dispositions.
…Sales of personal-use property….”
So, does that mean the client can view this as just an unrelated loan? And if it is an unrelated loan will the payments from the escrow company just keep coming to them as if they were receiving the money?
Thanks JG
Later in the year the client wanted to sell the whole note to a company that bought notes. However, the terms were too stiff. So they "borrowed" a smaller amount from that company.
The payments from the buyer of the home will go to the company until the principal of what they borrowed is repaid. Then the payments start coming back to them.
My first thought was to tax all the principal and interest they received earlier in the year, plus the additional amount that they "borrowed" from the company. (That is the way I did their projected tax for the year.) Now I am second guessing.
In publication 537 page 5 it says “If you use an installment obligation to secure any debt, the net proceeds from the debt may be treated as a payment on the installment obligation. This is known as the pledge rule and it applies if the selling price of the property is over $150000. It does not apply to the following dispositions.
…Sales of personal-use property….”
So, does that mean the client can view this as just an unrelated loan? And if it is an unrelated loan will the payments from the escrow company just keep coming to them as if they were receiving the money?
Thanks JG
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