A partner sells a portion of his partnership interest. His basis and at risk balances are -0-, and he has operating losses being carried forward. My understanding is that, while the sale proceeds will increase his at risk balance, since his basis is still zero he can't offset the operating losses against the capital gain, nor can he use the operating losses up the the amount of his at risk balance to offset earned income, correct?
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Basis versus At-Risk Upon Sale of Partnership Interest
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