Hypothethical Question. John has been married before, and divorced. Then he marries Gretchen. Gretchen has a grown child, Paula, by a former marriage.
John (alone) buys some rental property for $100,000, but he rents it to Gretchen's daughter, Paula. Assume it loses $5000 per year for five years. There have been $25,000 of losses which he couldn't take because Gretchen's daughter Paula is a related party.
After five years, John and Gretchen can't stand each other and divorce. John keeps the house but Paula has been faithfully paying rent and doesn't really have anywhere better to go, so John continues to rent to Paula. John and Paula now are not related parties.
John (alone) buys some rental property for $100,000, but he rents it to Gretchen's daughter, Paula. Assume it loses $5000 per year for five years. There have been $25,000 of losses which he couldn't take because Gretchen's daughter Paula is a related party.
After five years, John and Gretchen can't stand each other and divorce. John keeps the house but Paula has been faithfully paying rent and doesn't really have anywhere better to go, so John continues to rent to Paula. John and Paula now are not related parties.
- Can John now deduct rental losses after his divorce from Gretchen? (I think so).
- Can John now recover any of the $25,000 in losses incurred in previous years? Sounds like I lay awake contriving questions like this, but these strange things really do happen.
Comment