I have goggled, etc. and cannot find this anywhere. Does anyone know if, in Texas, a loan made to purchase an owner-occupied residence is nonrecourse by statute?
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Originally posted by WhiteOleanderI have goggled, etc. and cannot find this anywhere. Does anyone know if, in Texas, a loan made to purchase an owner-occupied residence is nonrecourse by statute?
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Yes I agree. I found somewhere that in California that type of mortgage is by statute nonrecourse. So I was hoping to find out is that is true in Texas, I know that Texas used to have pretty strict laws about that. But alot changed in the '90's.You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say will be misquoted, then used against you.
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Originally posted by WhiteOleanderYes I agree. I found somewhere that in California that type of mortgage is by statute nonrecourse. So I was hoping to find out is that is true in Texas, I know that Texas used to have pretty strict laws about that. But alot changed in the '90's.
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Originally posted by WhiteOleanderActually, I'm working on some "what-if" scenarios for a class on repossesions. This info would be very helpful.
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Not exactly
>>in California that type of mortgage is by statute nonrecourse<<
Not exactly. In California, there are two types of home loans, and the lender always makes both at the same time.
A "mortgage" is secured by the borrower. The lender has to go to court to foreclose, but if the forced sale doesn't cover the full debt the borrower is still liable and the lender can sue for any other assets the borrower has. A "deed of trust" is much easier to foreclose, but it's only against the subject property so the forced sale eliminates the entire debt even if the lender loses money on it.
Since the borrower signs both documents, the lender can choose which way to go. Usually they foreclose on the deed of trust, but as property values drop we will see more judicial foreclosures against wealthy owners who are trying to walk away from their obligations.Last edited by jainen; 09-19-2006, 07:16 PM.
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Originally posted by jainen>>in California that type of mortgage is by statute nonrecourse<<
Not exactly. In California, there are two types of home loans, and the lender always makes both at the same time.
A "mortgage" is secured by the borrower. The lender has to go to court to foreclose, but if the forced sale doesn't cover the full debt the borrower is still liable and the lender can sue for any other assets the borrower has. A "deed of trust" is much easier to foreclose, but it's only against the subject property so the forced sale eliminates the entire debt even if the lender loses money on it.
Since the borrower signs both documents, the lender can choose which way to go. Usually they foreclose on the deed of trust, but as property values drop we will see more judicial foreclosures against wealthy owners who are trying to walk away from their obligations.
Actually what you described is how it works here in Texas. So, I was trying to find out if it was required by statute to be nonrecourse her as I thought it was in CA.
Just goes to show, you need all the info first. This is actually a group of about 15 that get together to look at different topics as it might relate to our tax prep. And since these laws are totally based on the state law, I wanted to give as much info on Texas as I could,
I may try getting an answer from Lawyers.com.You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say will be misquoted, then used against you.
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