Can a tp in year 6 of an installment loan declare on their 1040 the full amount of unpaid principle, thus reporting interest only in future years?
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If I'm reading this correctly, we haven't grasped the impact of the original question.
After setting up under an installment plan for a few years, can the lender "opt out" of installment treatment in future years by declaring all payments in a current year? And can this be done even though the payments are continuing under the original installment agreement?
There might be strategic reasons for doing this. The current year may have been a very bad year with low taxation, such that absorbing the remaining income makes sense.
Seems like I remember a check box, where a lender can do this, but he (she) has to claim all remaining receipts (including interest) and apply the entire amount subject to the applicable percentage.
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"You said it, they'll never know the difference. Come on, we'll paint our way out!" - Moe Howard
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My associate was trying to clear his plate not realizing that I had posted this before. The money trail (tp took his own money, acted like he paid it off, rewrote the deed of trust note taking spouse's name off deed of trust , then got his money back. (Same amount)l lead me to this is not a true payoff. So I will continue the sale onwards and let the heirs decipher what they are going to do as both TP and spouse are now deceased.
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