Client owns a restaurant and at 12/31/05 has 270,000 in loans to S-corp on books with debt basis of 210,000. During a typical year, shareholder will usually loan more $ to corp and will take distributions agains the loan. . .but never on a regular basis. There has never been any real tracking of the loans and there has never been any interest paid or imputed. This is a new client to me. This is a cash basis taxpayer, except for inventory.
I'm curious to hear how other preparers would handle this situation, specifically regarding the increases and decreases during the year and interest payments (or lack thereof.) Would you use some sort of amortization schedule to impute interest when actual payments are made? Assuming we'd classify this as a demand loan (since regular payments are not made) I believe we'd have to impute interest at the end of the year, which would increase his equity and would be a wash on his 1040. Is this correct? Let's say he loans $1,500 on 4/1, $800 on 6/1, $1,200 on 7/1, $2,000 on 8/1, $300 on 8/15, etc. . . would you write up separate notes everytime he makes a loan? Seems like a lot of effort to me but it would appear from the regs that each would be considered a separate loan.
Other perinent info: this is a sole shareholder and the interest in the business is nonpassive (he's the chef).
Thanks for your help, as always.
I'm curious to hear how other preparers would handle this situation, specifically regarding the increases and decreases during the year and interest payments (or lack thereof.) Would you use some sort of amortization schedule to impute interest when actual payments are made? Assuming we'd classify this as a demand loan (since regular payments are not made) I believe we'd have to impute interest at the end of the year, which would increase his equity and would be a wash on his 1040. Is this correct? Let's say he loans $1,500 on 4/1, $800 on 6/1, $1,200 on 7/1, $2,000 on 8/1, $300 on 8/15, etc. . . would you write up separate notes everytime he makes a loan? Seems like a lot of effort to me but it would appear from the regs that each would be considered a separate loan.
Other perinent info: this is a sole shareholder and the interest in the business is nonpassive (he's the chef).
Thanks for your help, as always.
Comment