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Divorced - Sale of Residence

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    Divorced - Sale of Residence

    Spouse was divorced six years ago and has not lived in the residence since then. She kept her name on the deed so the husband would not have to re-finance the mortgage. When the house sells they will split the proceeds. Since she does not meet the tests on the exclusion of any gain, would her part of the gain be subject to capital gains tax? My thought is yes it would.

    #2
    From Pub 523

    Separated or divorced taxpayers.



    If you were separated or divorced prior to the sale of the home, you can treat the home as your residence if:
    • You are a sole or joint owner, and
    • Your spouse or former spouse is allowed to live in the home under a divorce or separation agreement and uses the home as his or her main home.
    https://www.irs.gov/publications/p52...ublink10008999

    Comment


      #3
      I am not sure how many divorced wives are still living in the same house after divorce with the ex?

      That is why good divorce attorney's will tell their client to get out of the mortgage and deed, even if it means refinancing.
      Taxes after all are the dues that we pay for the privileges of membership in an organized society. - FDR

      Comment


        #4
        You stated she has not lived in the home for 6 years. But under the scenario posted by Kathyc2 above, it just says "spouse or former spouse." Therefore, if HE continued to live in the home and used it as his main home it appears she would also qualify for 121 exclusion.

        Comment


          #5
          Originally posted by Burke View Post
          You stated she has not lived in the home for 6 years. But under the scenario posted by Kathyc2 above, it just says "spouse or former spouse." Therefore, if HE continued to live in the home and used it as his main home it appears she would also qualify for 121 exclusion.
          Interesting as one reads more it states:

          Separated or divorced taxpayers
          ........
          “If your home was transferred to you by a spouse or ex-spouse (whether in connection with a divorce or not), you can count any time when your spouse owned the home as time when you owned it. However, you must meet the residence requirement on your own.”
          Always cite your source for support to defend your opinion

          Comment


            #6
            Yes, interesting. However, it appears in this case, the home was not transferred to the spouse. She remained on the deed.

            Comment


              #7
              She meets the requirements, and is able to take the exclusion. As Kathy pointed out from pub 523

              Comment


                #8
                Originally posted by Burke View Post
                Yes, interesting. However, it appears in this case, the home was not transferred to the spouse. She remained on the deed.
                Wonder if the Spouse would treat the property as Investment property.
                Always cite your source for support to defend your opinion

                Comment


                  #9
                  Read what Kathy said !!

                  Comment


                    #10
                    Originally posted by FEDUKE404
                    I tend to agree with the original post by Forensicacctnt.
                    The ex-wife has a very steep mountain to climb in order to meet the residency requirements for any gain exclusion.
                    .)
                    I'm not sure the original poster gave enough information to fully make a determination. Since the divorce was six years ago, this is the relevant piece of §121. What did the divorce instrument say?

                    (3) Property owned by spouse or former spouse
                    For purposes of this section -
                    (A) ...

                    (B) Property used by former spouse pursuant to divorce decree, etc. Solely for purposes of this section, an individual shall be treated as using property as such individual's principal residence during any period of ownership while such individual's spouse or former spouse is granted use of the property under a divorce or separation instrument (as defined in section 71(b)(2)).

                    Comment


                      #11
                      Originally posted by New York Enrolled Agent View Post

                      I'm not sure the original poster gave enough information to fully make a determination. Since the divorce was six years ago, this is the relevant piece of §121. What did the divorce instrument say?

                      (3) Property owned by spouse or former spouse
                      For purposes of this section -
                      (A) ...

                      (B) Property used by former spouse pursuant to divorce decree, etc. Solely for purposes of this section, an individual shall be treated as using property as such individual's principal residence during any period of ownership while such individual's spouse or former spouse is granted use of the property under a divorce or separation instrument (as defined in section 71(b)(2)).
                      Are you referencing that the ““property” is not mentioned in section 71(b)(2) rather theDivorce or separation instrument?

                      §71. Alimony and separate maintenance payments

                      (a) General rule

                      Gross income includes amounts received as alimony or separate maintenance payments.
                      ......

                      (b) Alimony or separate maintenance payments defined

                      For purposes of this section—
                      (2) Divorce or separation instrument

                      The term ‘‘divorce or separation instru- ment’’ means—

                      (A) a decree of divorce or separate mainte- nance or a written instrument incident to such a decree,

                      (B) a written separation agreement, or

                      (C) a decree (not described in subparagraph (A)) requiring a spouse to make payments for the support or maintenance of the other spouse.

                      (c) Payments to support children (1) In general

                      Subsection (a) shall not apply to that part of
                      Last edited by TAXNJ; 11-11-2019, 10:16 AM.
                      Always cite your source for support to defend your opinion

                      Comment


                        #12
                        Sorry, I'm not sure I fully understand your question.

                        Those words are the words of the IRC - please clarify - for "old" divorces §71(b)(2) is used. The language in §121 is different for "new" divorces.

                        Comment


                          #13
                          Originally posted by New York Enrolled Agent View Post
                          Sorry, I'm not sure I fully understand your question.

                          Those words are the words of the IRC - please clarify - for "old" divorces §71(b)(2) is used. The language in §121 is different for "new" divorces.
                          Was looking for the word “home” or “residence” in section 71(b)(2) when you mentioned section 71(b)(2) in your reply post.

                          At this point it does not matter. There are enough good reply posts. Thanks.
                          Always cite your source for support to defend your opinion

                          Comment

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