Taxpayer and wife own some land with a rock house and a trailer house. They've been there for decades and are selling. Their plan is this:
1) Sell rock house with half the land and take $500K gain exclusion for principal residence.
2) Move into trailer house for 2 years then sell it and take gain exclusion for principal residence.
This strategy works but a portion of the gain on Sale #2 will not be excludable because there were periods of non-qualified use after 2008.
A single buyer wants all of the property and is willing to wait while taxpayer satisfies the residency requirement. They will sign a binding agreement now to do sale #1 this year and sale #2 within 3 years. Taxpayer and buyer are now trying to determine how the total sale price should be allocated between the two sales. Are they free to do it however they want to minimize taxes? Or does the allocation need to be roughly proportional to the FMV?
1) Sell rock house with half the land and take $500K gain exclusion for principal residence.
2) Move into trailer house for 2 years then sell it and take gain exclusion for principal residence.
This strategy works but a portion of the gain on Sale #2 will not be excludable because there were periods of non-qualified use after 2008.
A single buyer wants all of the property and is willing to wait while taxpayer satisfies the residency requirement. They will sign a binding agreement now to do sale #1 this year and sale #2 within 3 years. Taxpayer and buyer are now trying to determine how the total sale price should be allocated between the two sales. Are they free to do it however they want to minimize taxes? Or does the allocation need to be roughly proportional to the FMV?
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