My customer has a lake house and has purchased the two parcels next to his for $ 135,000 - from one seller, at arm's length.
Parcel #1 is between the two houses and is land only. Parcel #2 has a house on it. He may eventually sell #2 and keep #1.
Property tax statements show assessed value for parcel #1 at $73,700 & #2 at $159,000 (he appears to have gotten a good price)
Without regard to any other costs or improvements, would this initial allocation to cost basis for #2 be appropriate ?
$ 159,000 / $ 232,700 = 68.33% of total purchase price allocable to parcel #2 ( $ 92,246 )
Thanks for comments.
Parcel #1 is between the two houses and is land only. Parcel #2 has a house on it. He may eventually sell #2 and keep #1.
Property tax statements show assessed value for parcel #1 at $73,700 & #2 at $159,000 (he appears to have gotten a good price)
Without regard to any other costs or improvements, would this initial allocation to cost basis for #2 be appropriate ?
$ 159,000 / $ 232,700 = 68.33% of total purchase price allocable to parcel #2 ( $ 92,246 )
Thanks for comments.
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