Hi Everyone. Client inherited a house from his father, put $12,000 of improvements in it, then sold it three months later. My question is regarding the cost basis. He did not get an appraisal after his dad passed away.
How do you substantiate cost basis when no appraisal was done? If he hadn't done the improvements, this wouldn't be an issue, I would just use the sale price for the cost basis. But since he did the improvements, do you just assume cost basis was $12K lower so he can take a loss for the cost of the improvements? Comparables and value estimates from real estate experts were all over the board, so that didn't really help.
Thanks!
How do you substantiate cost basis when no appraisal was done? If he hadn't done the improvements, this wouldn't be an issue, I would just use the sale price for the cost basis. But since he did the improvements, do you just assume cost basis was $12K lower so he can take a loss for the cost of the improvements? Comparables and value estimates from real estate experts were all over the board, so that didn't really help.
Thanks!
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