Hi Everyone. I'm really struggling with a mixed-use property sale, I'm hoping to get some insight on some of my questions.
In general, client sold their home last year, they had a separate barn on the property that was personal use for most of the time they lived there, but they rented it out for a few years before they sold their home.
I think I'm okay with the cost basis part, they had the barn converted to a livable structure and have good records, so I'm comfortable with the $15,000 they gave me.
It's the sales price I'm struggling with. How do you allocate the sales price between the house (which was their personal residence and qualifies for the home sale exclusion) and the barn?
The house sold for $279,900, which includes a 3,000+ sq ft house, 20 acres and 3 outbuildings including the livable barn that was rented out. The livable square footage in the barn is pretty small, around 300 sq ft.
The property was appraised at $350,000 before they sold (not sure how good that appraisal was since they weren't able to sell anywhere close to that price). They sold the property for $279,900. They do not have a separate appraisal for the barn that was rented out.
Anyway, what would be a reasonable way to allocate the sales price? I have the cost of the barn (15K) vs the cost to build the house ($165K). Would it be reasonable to assign 8.3% of the sales price to the barn (based on the proprotion of the cost to build the barn vs the cost to build the house)? Or should you allocate based on square footage, which would be slightly lower (250 sq ft for the barn vs 3100 for the main house)?
I can't imagine that the barn had very much value compared to the 3100 sq ft house and the 20 acres of land. But again, I'm not sure how much of the sales price to allocate to the barn.
Or, do they just need to recapture the depreciation for the years the barn was rented?
Any help would be greatly appreciated, thank you!
In general, client sold their home last year, they had a separate barn on the property that was personal use for most of the time they lived there, but they rented it out for a few years before they sold their home.
I think I'm okay with the cost basis part, they had the barn converted to a livable structure and have good records, so I'm comfortable with the $15,000 they gave me.
It's the sales price I'm struggling with. How do you allocate the sales price between the house (which was their personal residence and qualifies for the home sale exclusion) and the barn?
The house sold for $279,900, which includes a 3,000+ sq ft house, 20 acres and 3 outbuildings including the livable barn that was rented out. The livable square footage in the barn is pretty small, around 300 sq ft.
The property was appraised at $350,000 before they sold (not sure how good that appraisal was since they weren't able to sell anywhere close to that price). They sold the property for $279,900. They do not have a separate appraisal for the barn that was rented out.
Anyway, what would be a reasonable way to allocate the sales price? I have the cost of the barn (15K) vs the cost to build the house ($165K). Would it be reasonable to assign 8.3% of the sales price to the barn (based on the proprotion of the cost to build the barn vs the cost to build the house)? Or should you allocate based on square footage, which would be slightly lower (250 sq ft for the barn vs 3100 for the main house)?
I can't imagine that the barn had very much value compared to the 3100 sq ft house and the 20 acres of land. But again, I'm not sure how much of the sales price to allocate to the barn.
Or, do they just need to recapture the depreciation for the years the barn was rented?
Any help would be greatly appreciated, thank you!
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