Client was age 72 in 2016 and worked (W-2 Earner) until 12/08/2016.
Previously never took an RMD from 401-K. Am I to understand that, because
she was still working, her initial RMD was not due til 4/01/2017? Hence, no
RMD was required for 2016 or previous?
Previously never took an RMD from 401-K. Am I to understand that, because
she was still working, her initial RMD was not due til 4/01/2017? Hence, no
RMD was required for 2016 or previous?
Comment