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A question was asked at a meeting. If the TP is paying for medicare(over 65) and the wife(59) is the one who is self employed can she use his medicare for the se deduction? I said no, it does not work that way. Am I off base?
To avoid an ongoing argument, I'll leave it to you to read the second-to-last full paragraph in CCA 201228037 (the paragraph that starts with "Medicare"):
To avoid an ongoing argument, I'll leave it to you to read the second-to-last full paragraph in CCA 201228037 (the paragraph that starts with "Medicare"):
I take the cite to mean that the SE needs to be the one paying the medicare in order to expense it. She doesn't pay it the husband does. Yep, here we go again
Believe nothing you have not personally researched and verified.
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