This will be a lengthy post, so bail out now if you are short on time.
The issue has been brought to the forum multiple times, and the reason I bring it this evening is because it has never really been settled. I don't know that it is settled yet, but I would like to ask if various court cases have established a consensus.
Yes - it is the old (and apparently eternal) issue of being employed in one state and working from home in another state. This has been going on for years, and the possibility exists that the treatment could vary from state-to-state.
The first such case of which I was aware came several years ago, with an employee of a New Jersey company, who was allowed to work from home in New York. Round one ended when he initially had to pay both states. He petitioned the New York court, who said they wanted "New York money" and couldn't care less what happened to him in New Jersey. The appeal to New Jersey claimed ALL of the income was taxable to New Jersey, and couldn't care less what happened to him in New York. The "couldn't care less" position by both states allowed each state to avoid bringing the issue to a settlement amongst the two states. I've been also told the states don't like each other. I know this is true with Rhode Island and Massachusetts.
I don't know how "round two" ended up for this guy, but I do know that states have been in turmoil defining "state source income" versus "place of performance." I am hoping by now there may be a consensus among states so that court rulings particular to each state will not have to be researched. Most of my experience with multiple states is very much like New York and New Jersey - every state wants the taxes defined to be "mine" and the definition is liberal in each state.
I can almost promise that employees do not have the choice of how to report - the burden would be on employers to issue W-2s correctly with state wages shown. Problem is, I'm not sure whether employers know how to treat this either.
You can be sure the IRS won't touch this, and considers federal taxation to be aloof from the squabbles. It's possible that the U S Court system could be involved, however. And maybe the Supreme Court needs to be.
I encourage you to respond if you have any recent information - maybe by now there are "multistate tax compacts" that bring a uniform definition. This topic is old, and surfaced several times - but it has surfaced because there has been no answer that satisfies.
The issue has been brought to the forum multiple times, and the reason I bring it this evening is because it has never really been settled. I don't know that it is settled yet, but I would like to ask if various court cases have established a consensus.
Yes - it is the old (and apparently eternal) issue of being employed in one state and working from home in another state. This has been going on for years, and the possibility exists that the treatment could vary from state-to-state.
The first such case of which I was aware came several years ago, with an employee of a New Jersey company, who was allowed to work from home in New York. Round one ended when he initially had to pay both states. He petitioned the New York court, who said they wanted "New York money" and couldn't care less what happened to him in New Jersey. The appeal to New Jersey claimed ALL of the income was taxable to New Jersey, and couldn't care less what happened to him in New York. The "couldn't care less" position by both states allowed each state to avoid bringing the issue to a settlement amongst the two states. I've been also told the states don't like each other. I know this is true with Rhode Island and Massachusetts.
I don't know how "round two" ended up for this guy, but I do know that states have been in turmoil defining "state source income" versus "place of performance." I am hoping by now there may be a consensus among states so that court rulings particular to each state will not have to be researched. Most of my experience with multiple states is very much like New York and New Jersey - every state wants the taxes defined to be "mine" and the definition is liberal in each state.
I can almost promise that employees do not have the choice of how to report - the burden would be on employers to issue W-2s correctly with state wages shown. Problem is, I'm not sure whether employers know how to treat this either.
You can be sure the IRS won't touch this, and considers federal taxation to be aloof from the squabbles. It's possible that the U S Court system could be involved, however. And maybe the Supreme Court needs to be.
I encourage you to respond if you have any recent information - maybe by now there are "multistate tax compacts" that bring a uniform definition. This topic is old, and surfaced several times - but it has surfaced because there has been no answer that satisfies.
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