A client was rear-ended in her car. FMV of car was $12,000. Client is expecting insurance proceeds of $25,000.
Form 4684 has the provision for a casualty to result in taxable income. I've just never seen this on an auto accident. Need to get a straight answer as to how the client was able to cover a $12K asset with $25K in coverage. Doesn't make sense.
When I get to the bottom of this, I expect the excess is to cover medical damage. Only damage was a trip to clinic to check for whiplash. Minor expense.
The way I look at this, there will be taxable income if the medical expense is what I expect it to be.
Comments?
Form 4684 has the provision for a casualty to result in taxable income. I've just never seen this on an auto accident. Need to get a straight answer as to how the client was able to cover a $12K asset with $25K in coverage. Doesn't make sense.
When I get to the bottom of this, I expect the excess is to cover medical damage. Only damage was a trip to clinic to check for whiplash. Minor expense.
The way I look at this, there will be taxable income if the medical expense is what I expect it to be.
Comments?
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