The general rule for related party transactions is that an accrual basis taxpayer cannot deduct an expense incurred for payments to an accrual-basis related party unless paid within 2-1/2 months of the year-end. Correct? But now I have a reverse situation which has me talking to myself.
Entity A is an S-Corp, reporting on an accrual basis, with one 100% shareholder. Entity B is an S-Corp, reporting on the cash basis, in which the sole shareholder in Entity A owns 28% and his wife owns 28%. So there's a controlled group involved here.
Entity B incurred significant expenses in 2016 for administrative services provided by Entity A, which are still unpaid. It appears that in this case Entity A (accrual basis) must report the income while Entity B (cash basis) cannot take a deduction, so the cash-basis reporting for Entity B is causing a mismatch and over-reporting of income for Entity A in 2016, which of course flows through to the personal tax returns of the 100% shareholder. Eventually the situation will right itself, but it's a sticky matter for 2016 unless there is a rationale for matching the revenue recognition and the eventual payment.
I'm probably grabbing at straws, but is there any logical basis or matching principle for Entity A to exclude the income until Entity B pays up?
Entity A is an S-Corp, reporting on an accrual basis, with one 100% shareholder. Entity B is an S-Corp, reporting on the cash basis, in which the sole shareholder in Entity A owns 28% and his wife owns 28%. So there's a controlled group involved here.
Entity B incurred significant expenses in 2016 for administrative services provided by Entity A, which are still unpaid. It appears that in this case Entity A (accrual basis) must report the income while Entity B (cash basis) cannot take a deduction, so the cash-basis reporting for Entity B is causing a mismatch and over-reporting of income for Entity A in 2016, which of course flows through to the personal tax returns of the 100% shareholder. Eventually the situation will right itself, but it's a sticky matter for 2016 unless there is a rationale for matching the revenue recognition and the eventual payment.
I'm probably grabbing at straws, but is there any logical basis or matching principle for Entity A to exclude the income until Entity B pays up?
Comment