I have a client who was taken back to court recently because her ex-husband claims he should have had their child on his tax returns as a dependent from 2010 forward. He won the case, and now claims he will re-file the returns starting with 2010 and claim the daughter; theoretically to get a refund for each of the years involved. The client is pretty upset, and worried that the IRS will now come after her for the years she claimed the daughter. She is very honest, and to her knowledge had been complying with the original decree all along. It appears the ex has run out of money, and by using the daughter, he thinks he may be able to make a buck. She claimed the daughter from 2010 to 2013, then the daughter moved in with her father in a different state in 2014, so my client no longer claimed her. I mentioned to my client that I have had NO luck with the IRS in receiving refunds after the statute of limitation has run it's course (none of my cases met the "special exceptions" in IRC 6511, and apparently neither does this one). Since 2010, 2011, & 2012 are outside of the statute of limitations, my feeling is that even if he amends his returns, the IRS will not send him a refund. If 2013's amendment is completed in time, I can see him receiving a refund, and my client ultimately receiving a letter from the IRS; either saying two people have claimed the daughter, or "prove to us how you were able to claim her". 2014 through 2016 are not a factor, as my client knew the daughter could not be claimed as a dependent. I would really like feedback on what scenarios any of you think might play out? My experience with court orders and such, is that the IRS views them as possibly helpful in determining a resolution, but they are not too interested in enforcing state based laws. The ex-husband has a thousand dollars for each year on his mind (CTC), and that was used as the basis for pretty much all of his argument. Thanks!
Announcement
Collapse
No announcement yet.
Statute of Limitations
Collapse
X
-
As you note the IRS has little interest in the findings of the state. If the child lived with her she is the custodial parent and he must have a signed Form 8332 in order to claim the child. Absent that he will not prevail regardless of the SOL.In other words, a democratic government is the only one in which those who vote for a tax can escape the obligation to pay it.
Alexis de Tocqueville
-
Agreed. She was entitled to the exemption since child lived with her. IRS will not come after her for any monies and they will not issue refunds to husband. Federal tax law trumps state law. Best hubbie can hope for is that judge orders wife to pay money to hubbie, and if I were she, I would fight that. The IRS is out of it.Last edited by Burke; 01-26-2017, 02:24 PM.
Comment
-
Originally posted by DaveOIf the child lived with her she is the custodial parent and he must have a signed Form 8332 in order to claim the child.
Also, even if the divorce decree was entered in 2009 or later, if it contains a clause requiring the W to sign F-8332, and she did not do so, she may be on the hook to reimburse her ex for the taxes he would have saved ... including the CTC ... in each of the years he was entitled to claim the child.
While reading the OP, I couldn't help but wonder: If the H has no money, how much is the child's dependent exemption and CTC really worth to him? I also concur that the ONLY year that is open to him now is 2013 ... and only for a little less than three more months.Roland Slugg
"I do what I can."
Comment
Disclaimer
Collapse
This message board allows participants to freely exchange ideas and opinions on areas concerning taxes. The comments posted are the opinions of participants and not that of Tax Materials, Inc. We make no claim as to the accuracy of the information and will not be held liable for any damages caused by using such information. Tax Materials, Inc. reserves the right to delete or modify inappropriate postings.
Comment