If meeting the same qualifications of home ownership, the sale of an adjacent lot next to a primary residence is counted as one sale, and subject to the exemption. See TTB 6-20.
But what if there are two separate sales, to two different individuals? House was sold to one individual and lot was sold to a different party?
I don't see anything in TTB 6-20 which causes the sale of the lot to be disqualified from the exemption.
Do you?
But what if there are two separate sales, to two different individuals? House was sold to one individual and lot was sold to a different party?
I don't see anything in TTB 6-20 which causes the sale of the lot to be disqualified from the exemption.
Do you?
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