I have a client who's purchase price of a rental property is $376,000. He got a loan modification several years back that brought his mortgage balance up to $420,000 by adding in missed payments to the principal. (I think this is called capitalization of interest?) He is now short selling the property. I've read about four publications now and old posts here and can't seem to find anything about weather the additional principal amount is added to basis or not.
Since it was in order to keep the house, it seems like the money went back into the property and should count as basis I feel, however it wasn't quite used to upgrade the house or buy something new for it. I'd really like to find something concrete if any of you have dealt with this before and can point me in the right direction, I'd sure appreciate it!
Since it was in order to keep the house, it seems like the money went back into the property and should count as basis I feel, however it wasn't quite used to upgrade the house or buy something new for it. I'd really like to find something concrete if any of you have dealt with this before and can point me in the right direction, I'd sure appreciate it!
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