I've read Code Sec 267 regarding related-party sales, but I'd like some feedback on my thought process/interpretation.
My client bought 5% interest in an LLC from his son-in-law in 2012. The LLC intended to build a building and planned to get a mortgage, plus borrow $100K each from his father & his father-in-law (my client). The bank wouldn't lend unless the two fathers bought an interest in the LLC, so they each bought a 5% interest in the LLC for $100,000 each.
In 2015, the son-in-law has repurchased my client's 5% for $100,000. My client's basis exceeds $100,000, so the sale is at a loss. Do the related-party rules make the loss non-deductible?
The 2012 Sales agreement was between the son-in-law & my client. My client's daughter doesn't own any part of the LLC directly. I feel like the loss on the sale is deductible because, following the related-party rules, my client does not/did not own any other portion of the LLC directly or indirectly before or after the purchase or sale & the son-in-law did not own any portion of the 5% interest directly or indirectly during the period of my client's ownership. To put it another way, this only works because my client's daughter has no direct interest in the LLC--even though she owns/owned 95% INDIRECTLY--90% via her husband & 5% via her father--that's actually why I hesitate. It seems like it is following rules, but violating the intent.
Is my thinking sound? Anything else I need to consider? (Sale at less than FMV, for example.)
My client bought 5% interest in an LLC from his son-in-law in 2012. The LLC intended to build a building and planned to get a mortgage, plus borrow $100K each from his father & his father-in-law (my client). The bank wouldn't lend unless the two fathers bought an interest in the LLC, so they each bought a 5% interest in the LLC for $100,000 each.
In 2015, the son-in-law has repurchased my client's 5% for $100,000. My client's basis exceeds $100,000, so the sale is at a loss. Do the related-party rules make the loss non-deductible?
The 2012 Sales agreement was between the son-in-law & my client. My client's daughter doesn't own any part of the LLC directly. I feel like the loss on the sale is deductible because, following the related-party rules, my client does not/did not own any other portion of the LLC directly or indirectly before or after the purchase or sale & the son-in-law did not own any portion of the 5% interest directly or indirectly during the period of my client's ownership. To put it another way, this only works because my client's daughter has no direct interest in the LLC--even though she owns/owned 95% INDIRECTLY--90% via her husband & 5% via her father--that's actually why I hesitate. It seems like it is following rules, but violating the intent.
Is my thinking sound? Anything else I need to consider? (Sale at less than FMV, for example.)
Comment