I have a client that has tuition that qualifies as a 2106 expense, but I'm not sure I'm understanding the travel allowance correctly. The following is from Pub 970:
"Example 4.
Assume the same facts as in Example 1 , except that you attend classes twice a week for 15 months. Since your attendance in school isn't considered temporary, you can't deduct your transportation expenses in going between home and school. If you go directly from work to school, you can deduct the one-way transportation expenses of going from work to school. If you go from work to home to school and return home, your transportation expenses can't be more than if you had gone directly from work to school."
Assume that work to home is 10 miles, work to school is 40 miles and home to school is 50 miles, all one way.
If she goes from work to school she deducts 40 miles for each trip?
If she goes home after work and then later goes to school she can still claim 40 miles?
If she goes to school on a day that she doesn't first go to work no deduction?
Correct or not?
"Example 4.
Assume the same facts as in Example 1 , except that you attend classes twice a week for 15 months. Since your attendance in school isn't considered temporary, you can't deduct your transportation expenses in going between home and school. If you go directly from work to school, you can deduct the one-way transportation expenses of going from work to school. If you go from work to home to school and return home, your transportation expenses can't be more than if you had gone directly from work to school."
Assume that work to home is 10 miles, work to school is 40 miles and home to school is 50 miles, all one way.
If she goes from work to school she deducts 40 miles for each trip?
If she goes home after work and then later goes to school she can still claim 40 miles?
If she goes to school on a day that she doesn't first go to work no deduction?
Correct or not?
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