Inherited property 20 yrs ago, no cost basis but never rented it....

Collapse
X
 
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts
  • AZ-Tax
    Senior Member
    • Feb 2008
    • 2604

    #1

    Inherited property 20 yrs ago, no cost basis but never rented it....

    TP inherited property 20 yrs ago. Lived in property for 1st 10 years then got married and move into wife's house. Left property empty & did not rent it out. TP cannot seem to locate any cost basis of property at time of inheritance. I am beating my head against the wall if it qualify as residence cap gain exclusion but coming up empty handed. Suggestions please.

    TP tells me property was under reverse mortgage prior to sale. Will that generate a 1099-S?
    Last edited by AZ-Tax; 02-04-2016, 12:29 PM.
  • Jiggers
    Senior Member
    • Sep 2005
    • 1973

    #2
    Have your client go to the property tax appraisal office and research the value of the property 20 years ago.
    Jiggers, EA

    Comment

    • Kram BergGold
      Senior Member
      • Jun 2006
      • 2112

      #3
      Capital Gain

      The Taxpayer did not use the property as a primary residence in 2 out of the last 5 years so there is no exclusion of gain. The IRS says unless he can come up with the value as of 20 years ago plus any documented improvements he paid for the cost basis is zero.

      Comment

      • Burke
        Senior Member
        • Jan 2008
        • 7068

        #4
        There is probably an assessed value in the city/county tax records for the year he inherited it. Tell him to check it out.

        Comment

        • Y2KEA
          Senior Member
          • Nov 2005
          • 344

          #5
          TP should get a forensic appraisal for FMV on DOD.

          Comment

          • Burke
            Senior Member
            • Jan 2008
            • 7068

            #6
            That might be a little tough. (1) Finding someone who would take it on; (2) finding comps for 20 yrs ago.

            Comment

            • taxea
              Senior Member
              • Nov 2005
              • 4292

              #7
              Originally posted by Jiggers
              Have your client go to the property tax appraisal office and research the value of the property 20 years ago.
              Have him ask for the assessment on his first tax bill, then have him contact a realtor and see whether it is possible to get comps on his property at the time he inherited it. Comps would give you a FMV. Assessment is usually a lesser value.
              Believe nothing you have not personally researched and verified.

              Comment

              • Burke
                Senior Member
                • Jan 2008
                • 7068

                #8
                Originally posted by AZ-Tax
                TP tells me property was under reverse mortgage prior to sale. Will that generate a 1099-S?
                Not because of the reverse mortgage. Usually, a seller has to sign a form at closing stating it is his personal residence or a 1099-S is issued. I had one last year where the seller did exactly that. Unfortunately, I had to tell him it did not qualify as his personal residence for 121 treatment, since he had not lived in it for the last 10 years. He let his F-I-L live there for free. So big cap gains bill.

                Comment

                • taxmom34
                  Senior Member
                  • Nov 2008
                  • 732

                  #9
                  isn't a reverse mortgage given for a home that you live in? how did taxpayer manage that?

                  Comment

                  • Burke
                    Senior Member
                    • Jan 2008
                    • 7068

                    #10
                    Yup. Good point! Maybe he did live in it when he applied, but I think once he moved out, it was required to be repaid within 6 mos.

                    Comment

                    • Jiggers
                      Senior Member
                      • Sep 2005
                      • 1973

                      #11
                      Originally posted by Burke
                      Yup. Good point! Maybe he did live in it when he applied, but I think once he moved out, it was required to be repaid within 6 mos.
                      So if he had to pay the loan back within 6 months of moving out, he was living in it? Something doesn't make sense.
                      Jiggers, EA

                      Comment

                      Working...