I think I am overthinking this question, hence the post.
Husband and wife buy CA vacant land. Husband dies and FMV at time of death is higher than cost. Wife dies and FMV is the highest yet.
Two years after her death, the trust sells the property under its EIN. Per the will, the trust is responsible for taxes and the remaining funds will be disbursed to the heirs.
I want to confirm that the basis is the FMV at the time of death of the wife and that it doesn't matter that it was sold under the trust's EIN versus the heirs' SSN. Also, I'm not familiar with community property state rules so I just want to make sure that I am using the correct FMV.
Husband and wife buy CA vacant land. Husband dies and FMV at time of death is higher than cost. Wife dies and FMV is the highest yet.
Two years after her death, the trust sells the property under its EIN. Per the will, the trust is responsible for taxes and the remaining funds will be disbursed to the heirs.
I want to confirm that the basis is the FMV at the time of death of the wife and that it doesn't matter that it was sold under the trust's EIN versus the heirs' SSN. Also, I'm not familiar with community property state rules so I just want to make sure that I am using the correct FMV.
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